I think you'll find it is, as the gain must be measured with reference to the A$ equivalent on the date you arrive in Australia (if owned on that date) and the A$ equivalent on the date the investment is sold/transferred/etc.
This from the relevant legislation:
"160K(5) [Amount expressed in foreign currency]
Where an amount of money, or the value of any property, that is to be taken into account for the purposes of this Part as, or as part of:
(a) the cost base to a taxpayer in respect of an asset; or
(b) the consideration in respect of the disposal of an asset;
would, but for this subsection, be an amount in the currency of a foreign country, the amount to be so taken into account is the equivalent amount in Australian currency at the time when the costs were incurred or the time of disposal of the asset, as the case may be."
So, if you own (say) shares in a UK company that are worth £10,000 on the date you arrive in Australia when the exchange rate is £1 = A$2.30, and you sell the shares 2 years later for £10,000 when the exchange rate is 2.50, you would have a gain (before allowing for the 50% discount that would be available) of A$2,000.
Best regards.
quote:
Originally posted by jim:
Surely a nil gain at source in GBP would not be taxed?
Alan Collett
alan-at-gomatilda-dot-com
Registered Migration Agent Number 0102534
and a Fellow of the Institute of Chartered Accountants in England and Wales
http://www.gomatilda.com and
http://www.collettandco.co.ukOffices in Southampton, England; Perth, Australia; and Melbourne, Australia